Does anybody know what the logic is behind making the finals a different format than the rest of the playoffs? I don't really care one way or the other, I'm just curious.

I really don't think it matters much at that point in the playoffs as the better team will win, I'm just curious. It just seems like a random wrinkle in the format.

It was instituted back when it was Lakers-Celtics every year for travel and rest issues, for the media and players (and fans, I guess).

I kind of like it, actually. I feel like it can account that it's not "fair" so to speak to compare records across the conferences and gives the team with the 3 in the 2-3-2 a great opportunity to take control of a series and put a lot of pressure of the other team. The Mavs can close this out without having to see the state of Florida again. Even if they went 0-2 to start, they could still take the series lead by winning at home. That's not possible in the 2-2-1-1-1 series. I do realize it can also bite them in the butt if they don't perform well in the middle 3. I guess it is what you make of it, and that's the way it should be.

[This message has been edited by TXAggie2011 (edited 6/5/2011 4:44a).]

Thanks...yeah, I figured it was a travel thing, I guess that does kind of make sense b/c of travel since it is East vs. West, although with the way the divisions work now I wouldn't be surprised if Maine got a team and it was in the Western Conference.

I understand it, I just think it's retarded. 2-2-1-1-1 is the way to go.

It's also supposed to assure the series goes to 6 or 7 games.

It basically takes away any home court advantage. I think its a toss up whether you want to have that 3 in the middle or those final two at home.