In other news the entire OKC come out as gay. Fouling a player without the ball starting with over 5 minutes left = total gayness.
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Forgive my ignorance, I do not watch the NBA often. How are these not intentional fouls? No attempt is being made at the ball...?
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The NBA decided to address this undesirable situation by instituting a new rule regarding off-the-ball fouls—that is, committing a personal foul against an offensive player who neither has the ball nor is making an effort to obtain it. The new rule stated that if the defensive team commits an off-the-ball foul within the last two minutes of the game, the offensive team would be allowed to keep possession of the ball after the awarding of either one or two free throws. Since the entire reason for employing intentional fouling as a strategy was to quickly terminate the offensive team's possession, this new rule, when in effect, forced the team using intentional fouling to foul only the offensive player who had the ball.
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Asik was awarded two free throws every time from the foul at 6:22 until they stopped fouling him. An intentional foul gets you two FTs. Is there something else expected?
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So what would happen if Asik never came inbounds...just stood by the basket support? Not that he needed to.