If someone is selling a piece of farmland that they have 90% undivided interest in what does that exactly mean? Would they need to buy the remaining interest out before selling?
Nope.kmat95 said:
The other minority land owner is up to date on his taxes unfortunately. So what I gather is that the seller could sell his 90% interest, but the property wouldn't be as marketable due to the 10% landowner having 100% access to the property, correct? From a title perspective, would the 10% owner need to sign off on the seller selling his 90%?
I know the 10% owner isn't interested in selling and I don't blame him. He's got a good deal going right now. Also, I don't believe he'd agree to partition 10% of the property because he'd likely want to partition the 10% with the utilities.