hph6203 said:
The rules for conventional loans are generally speaking:
-First 2 years, cannot remove regardless of LTV
-2-5 years can be removed with an appraisal at 75% LTV
->5 years can be removed with an appraisal at 80% LTV
-At 80% LTV payment based upon the original amortization schedule and original appraised value the PMI can be removed upon request with no appraisal. (i.e. you have to make the payments, you cannot do it by paying down the balance)
-At 78% LTV based upon the original amortization schedule and appraisal the PMI is required to be removed. (i.e. you have to make the payments, you cannot do it by paying down the balance)
That's for primary residences only, and there's some minor variation between FHLMC and FNMA.
A question I've never been able to get an answer on even after talking to my mortgage company is this:
If at 2 years I get an appraisal and it comes in at say 80% LTV. So I'm just short of the required amount to get rid of PMI early, but I'm alot closer than I was with my original purchase price/valuation.
Would that be my new benchmark to pay down towards it removing? Based on my current amortization schedule it would naturally fall off at around the 5 year mark. In my head, that should just move up that it naturally is removed, but I have a feeling thats not the case
I'm sure the answer is "it varies" but since I've never gotten an answer in my specific loan instance, can someone shine some light on their experience?