We are moving from (selling in) Walker County and moving to (buying in) Montgomery County, and I have called both CAD's, but I still don't feel like I have a solid grasp on an answer to my question. This is partially because both counties hedged a little bit because each county may do things a little differently.

We currently have a homestead exemption in Walker County that has been in place for about 6 years. The new home in Montgomery County does not currently have a homestead exemption, as the owner is not the occupant (it's his parents, who have kept it up wonderfully).

Do I need to actively remove the exemption in Walker County, or does that happen naturally with the sale? Is there any pro or con to our buyer regarding whether we actively remove it or leave it alone?

And does my application for the homestead exemption in Montgomery County depend at all on what we do with the Walker County exemption?

I'm not a real estate expert, so no clue if I'm correct, but logic tells me a Homestead Exemption is tied to the property owner and not the property itself. Meaning when you sell one home and then buy another, all you'll need to do is just apply for a homestead exemption on the purchased property. Your homestead exemption on the property you sold basically becomes null because you no longer own it.

That is essentially one way that it was presented to me. But I also remember someone during this whole selling and buying process telling me that I need to remove the current homestead exemption before selling.

Unfortunately, I have spoken to so many people about so many house-related things in the last couple of months, I can remember neither who told me that nor what the reasoning was.

You will need to remove it from the old property before it can be applied to the new property. I did this just last year.

This is correct info. thanks